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Asked by Sanjay Last Modified
Answer It is quite a debatable one to answer. Some say that it is definitely possible because the French language has a German substrate, while others disagree with the claim saying it is less accurate. According to them, the emphasis on personal pronouns stronger in French due to the morphological changes that prompt towards losing of phonemic distinctions in French.
Since we’re talking about French and other romantic languages, here are a few facts to explore.
A. There are different romance languages in the world – Portuguese, French, Spanish, Italian and Romanian are considered amongst the most popular languages in this family.
B. There are about 450 million Spanish speakers, roughly 220 million Portuguese speakers, approximately 63 million Italian speakers, about 276 million French speakers and 34 million people speak Romanian.
C. This romance language family is considered as one of the biggest language families in the world.
D. It is believed that this language family, as a whole, are descendants of Vulgar Latin; languages which are spoken by the people in the Roman Empire.
E. Believed to be originated in Latin roots, these languages have a high degree of lexical similarity. For example, Sardinian, as a romance language has 80% similarity with French, 85% with Italian, 76% with Spanish and so on.
Hope this answer help!
read lessRelated Questions
Hello,
Could some one suggest me the books ( syllabus) for C1 level in French.
I want to write this exam as a "Candidat Libre".
Thanks for your suggestions
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