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Letbe a function defined as. The inverse of f is map g: Range

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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It is given that Let y be an arbitrary element of Range f. Then, there exists x ∈such that Let us define g: Rangeas Now, ∴ Thus, g is the inverse of f i.e., f−1 = g. Hence, the inverse of f is the map g: Range, which is given by The correct answer is B.
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It is given that

Let y be an arbitrary element of Range f.

Then, there exists x ∈such that 

Let us define g: Rangeas

Now,

Thus, g is the inverse of f i.e., f−1 = g.

Hence, the inverse of f is the map g: Range, which is given by

The correct answer is B.

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